Let E be the set of all integers whose unit (ones) digit is 1. If a number is chosen uniformly at random from {2, 3, 4, …, 50}, what is the probability it belongs to E?
Aptitude
Probability
Difficulty: Easy
Choose an option
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A5/49
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B4/49
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C3/49
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D2/49
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ENone of these
Answer
Correct Answer: 4/49
Explanation
Introduction / Context:This question checks counting with simple modular (last-digit) patterns over a finite range. We pick uniformly from consecutive integers and count those ending with 1.
Given Data / Assumptions:
- Set S = {2, 3, 4, …, 50} has 49 numbers.
- Event E: unit digit = 1.
Concept / Approach:
- Within any block of ten consecutive integers, exactly one ends with digit 1.
- Enumerate within the given finite range.
Step-by-Step Solution:
Eligible numbers in S ending with 1: 11, 21, 31, 41Count(E) = 4; Count(S) = 50 − 2 + 1 = 49Probability = 4 / 49Verification / Alternative check:Check endpoints: 1 is not included; 51 is outside the range; thus exactly four hits (every ten steps) remain: 11, 21, 31, 41.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
- 5/49, 3/49, 2/49 miscount how many candidates end with 1.
- “None of these” is false because 4/49 is attainable.
Common Pitfalls:
- Accidentally including 1 or 51 which are outside the closed interval.
Final Answer:4/49