Inverse Variation – Changing workforce: A certain number of men can complete a job in 80 days. If there were 10 fewer men, the job would require 20 additional days (i.e., 100 days). How many men were there initially?

Aptitude Time and Work Difficulty: Easy
Choose an option
Answer

Correct Answer: 50

Explanation

Introduction / Context:Work completion time varies inversely with the number of workers when each worker’s productivity is constant. This becomes a simple equation in “man-days”.

Given Data / Assumptions:

  • Let initial men = M.
  • Initial time = 80 days.
  • With 10 fewer men (M − 10), time = 100 days.

Concept / Approach:Equate man-days: M * 80 = (M − 10) * 100 and solve for M.

Step-by-Step Solution:80M = 100M − 10001000 = 20MM = 50

Verification / Alternative check:Man-days = 50 * 80 = 4000. With 40 men: 4000/40 = 100 days, consistent with the condition.

Why Other Options Are Wrong:45, 40, 60, and 55 fail the man-day equality when checked back against both scenarios.

Common Pitfalls:Adding times instead of equating man-days; forgetting to multiply by the changed workforce size.

Final Answer:50

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