Question 1

In PC optical media terminology, the “Red Book,” “Yellow Book,” and “Orange Book” refer to which family of standards?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Technicians often encounter color-coded “book” names when working with compact disc formats. Knowing what the Red, Yellow, and Orange Books specify helps with compatibility, mastering, and troubleshooting optical drives and media in PC environments. Given Data / Assumptions: We are identifying what the color “books” collectively represent. Context is PC/optical media standards. Concept / Approach: The Red Book defines the Compact Disc Digital Audio (CD-DA) format. The Yellow Book defines CD-ROM data standards (modes, error correction). The Orange Book covers recordable and rewritable formats (CD-R, CD-RW). Collectively, these are CD-family standards. Step-by-Step Solution: Recognize “color book” names: Red, Yellow, Orange.Match each to CD specifications (audio, ROM data, recordable).Select the umbrella category: CD-ROM/Compact Disc standards. Verification / Alternative check: Standards documentation and vendor references consistently classify these as compact disc specifications published by Sony/Philips and others. Why Other Options Are Wrong: SCSI/IDE: these are interface buses, not optical format standards. Floppy drive technology: unrelated to color books. All of the above: incorrect mix; only CD standards fit. Common Pitfalls: Confusing interface standards (SATA/IDE/SCSI) with media format standards (CD/DVD/Blu-ray). Final Answer: CD-ROM standards.

Question 2

For editing and playback of very large video files on legacy PC platforms, which storage option typically provides the fastest access performance?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Video editing and high-throughput workloads need storage with fast sustained transfer rates and low command overhead. Historically, professional workstations favored particular bus/storage technologies to meet these demands before widespread adoption of SATA/SAS NVMe. Given Data / Assumptions: Context is legacy/traditional PC storage (SCSI vs IDE/EIDE vs optical). Workload involves large video files requiring sustained throughput. Concept / Approach: Parallel SCSI (particularly Ultra/Ultra160/Ultra320 generations) offered higher sustained bandwidth, tagged command queuing, and multi-device buses tuned for servers/workstations. Consumer IDE/EIDE often had lower sustained speeds and higher CPU overhead. Optical drives (CD/DVD) were far slower and unsuitable for high-rate editing. Step-by-Step Solution: Compare bus capabilities: SCSI supports queuing and higher bus bandwidth.Assess media speed: HDDs on SCSI historically spun faster (10k/15k rpm enterprise).Eliminate obviously slower options: optical drives.Select SCSI hard drives for fastest access in this context. Verification / Alternative check: Benchmarks from the era show SCSI outperforming consumer IDE in sustained transfers and random I/O, especially with multiple streams. Why Other Options Are Wrong: IDE/EIDE hard drives: consumer-grade, slower spindle speeds, less effective command queuing. Optical drives: orders of magnitude slower in both throughput and latency. None: incorrect; SCSI is the correct historical choice. Common Pitfalls: Judging by interface alone without considering enterprise vs consumer drive classes. Final Answer: SCSI hard drives.

Question 3

When a maintenance guide lists several possible field-replaceable units (FRUs) that might fix a fault, what is the correct next step after powering down the system?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Field-replaceable unit (FRU) methodology aims to minimize downtime and cost while restoring function. Proper replacement order and verification reduce the risk of misdiagnosis and new faults introduced during repair. Given Data / Assumptions: A validated maintenance document lists multiple possible FRUs. The device has been safely powered off and ESD precautions are in place. Goal: resolve the fault efficiently and traceably. Concept / Approach: Best practice is controlled substitution: replace only one FRU at a time following the manufacturer’s recommended sequence. After each swap, retest to confirm whether the fault is cleared. This isolates the root cause and prevents unnecessary replacement of serviceable parts. Step-by-Step Solution: Power down, disconnect, and apply ESD protection.Consult the service guide for the ordered list of likely FRUs.Replace the first FRU only, then retest the system.If unresolved, proceed to the next FRU; return unused FRUs to inventory. Verification / Alternative check: Most OEM service manuals and ITIL-style procedures specify single-variable changes to ensure clear cause-effect attribution and maintain proper parts control. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Replace all FRUs at once: wasteful and obscures the actual root cause. Always replace the system board first: unnecessarily invasive and expensive; follow documented order. Assume software is most likely: may delay hardware resolution; diagnostics already pointed to FRUs. None of the above: incorrect because controlled, one-at-a-time FRU replacement is correct. Common Pitfalls: Skipping retest after each change, which complicates root-cause analysis. Failing to re-image or re-seat connections properly after replacement. Final Answer: Replace the indicated parts one at a time in the recommended sequence until the issue is resolved; return any unused FRUs to stock.

Question 4

During PC startup, which of the following is a common cause of a “fixed disk error” reported by the BIOS or POST diagnostics?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Older BIOS setups require correct drive parameters (type, cylinders, heads, sectors, LBA/CHS mode) to recognize hard disks. Misconfiguration can trigger a “fixed disk error” during the power-on self-test (POST), halting the boot process or making the disk inaccessible. Given Data / Assumptions: We are diagnosing a POST-level fixed disk error. Legacy systems rely on CMOS/BIOS configuration for drive geometry. No additional symptoms are specified. Concept / Approach: If the CMOS contains wrong parameters (incorrect drive type, disabled controller/port, wrong LBA setting), the BIOS fails to identify or properly access the hard disk, reporting a fixed disk error. Correcting CMOS values or auto-detecting the drive typically resolves it. While failing RAM can cause various issues, a specific “fixed disk” message usually points to disk/controller configuration or hardware faults. Step-by-Step Solution: Enter BIOS setup immediately after POST prompt.Verify that the primary/secondary IDE/SATA port is enabled and set to Auto or the correct drive parameters.Save changes and reboot to confirm the error clears.If the error persists, check cables, power, and physical drive health. Verification / Alternative check: Service manuals for legacy PCs list incorrect CMOS geometry or disabled ports as a primary cause of fixed-disk POST errors. Successful auto-detection typically validates this diagnosis quickly. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bad RAM: can cause random crashes, but not a targeted fixed-disk geometry error. Slow processor: has no bearing on disk identification at POST. No-CD installed: optical drive presence is unrelated to a fixed disk error. None of the above: incorrect because wrong CMOS settings are a well-known cause. Common Pitfalls: Overlooking disabled storage controllers after a CMOS reset or battery failure. Mismatching cable positions (master/slave on PATA) or SATA mode changes (AHCI/IDE) without drivers. Final Answer: Incorrect CMOS settings.

Question 5

New IDE hard drive not detected by BIOS: what should be checked first to resolve recognition issues on a legacy Parallel ATA (PATA/IDE) setup?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: When installing a new Parallel ATA (IDE) hard drive in older desktop systems, the system BIOS must be able to identify the device. If the BIOS does not recognize the drive, the most common root cause is incorrect device configuration on the shared IDE channel, especially the Master/Slave/Cable-Select jumper setting on the drive itself. Given Data / Assumptions: Legacy IDE/PATA interface using a 40- or 80-conductor ribbon cable. At least one new drive has just been connected. BIOS does not detect the drive during POST or within the setup utility. Concept / Approach: IDE channels can host two devices that must be uniquely identified as Master and Slave (or both set to Cable-Select with the cable determining position). If jumpers are mis-set (e.g., both drives forced to Master), the controller often fails to enumerate either device. Therefore, the quickest and most effective first check is the jumper block on the drive label or shell. Step-by-Step Solution: Power down and disconnect AC power.Inspect the new drive's label to find the correct jumper diagram for Master/Slave/Cable-Select.If sharing a cable with another drive, set one to Master and the other to Slave, or set both to Cable-Select and use the proper cable positions (end = Master, middle = Slave for CS).Reconnect the IDE ribbon with the colored edge on pin 1, and ensure the Molex/SATA power is secure.Enter BIOS and rescan for drives; save settings. Verification / Alternative check: If jumpers are correct and the drive still is not detected, then verify cable orientation, try a known-good 80-wire cable, move to the secondary IDE channel, or test the drive in another system/enclosure. Why Other Options Are Wrong: cable sequence: Important, but jumper conflicts are more common and the first thing to confirm. drivers that need to be loaded: BIOS detection occurs before OS drivers. hard drive manufacturer web site information: Helpful later, not the first fix. None of the above: Incorrect because jumpers are the priority check. Common Pitfalls: Using Cable-Select with a 40-wire cable, mixing CS and explicit Master/Slave on the same channel, or reversing the ribbon cable so pin 1 is wrong. Final Answer: jumpers on the hard drive

Question 6

A system periodically locks up and software causes have been ruled out. Which first diagnostic step best isolates a faulty hardware component without buying parts?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Intermittent system freezes can stem from marginal CPUs, chipsets, cache, or memory timing. A smart first step is to change a setting that reduces system stress and helps distinguish between CPU/cache timing faults and other issues—without immediately swapping parts. Given Data / Assumptions: Operating system/software causes have been excluded. System has CMOS setup allowing CPU cache control (L1/L2 or external cache). Goal: Narrow down hardware suspects quickly. Concept / Approach: Disabling CPU cache in CMOS dramatically slows the system but often stabilizes timing-sensitive faults caused by marginal cache or CPU. If freezes stop with cache disabled, the suspect area is CPU/cache path or related timings. If freezes persist, look elsewhere (RAM, PSU, overheating, motherboard). This is a diagnostic toggle—no purchases required. Step-by-Step Solution: Enter BIOS/UEFI setup and locate CPU cache options (internal/external).Disable the cache and save settings.Boot and run stress or normal workloads to observe stability changes.If stable only with cache off, investigate heatsink, CPU, cache, or VRM; if still unstable, proceed to RAM testing or PSU checks. Verification / Alternative check: Follow up with memory diagnostics (e.g., memtest) and monitoring temperatures/voltages. Re-enable cache once testing is complete. Why Other Options Are Wrong: rotate the RAM: Swapping slots may help later, but it does not target cache/CPU timing. replace the RAM / replace the level 2 cache SIMM / replace the CPU: Parts replacement is not the best first step; confirm the fault domain first. Common Pitfalls: Mistaking a thermal issue for a logic fault; always verify cooling, dust, and thermal paste before replacing parts. Final Answer: disable the CPU cache in CMOS

Question 7

On a hard disk, the circular tracks are further subdivided into which addressable units used by the controller for read/write operations?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Magnetic disks organize data in a hierarchy of physical and logical structures. Understanding terms like cylinder, head, track, and sector is foundational for storage troubleshooting, imaging, and partitioning. Given Data / Assumptions: A conventional spinning hard disk layout is implied. Tracks are concentric rings on a platter surface. Question asks the next subdivision below tracks. Concept / Approach: Each track is split into fixed-size segments called sectors (historically 512 bytes, now often 4,096 bytes on Advanced Format drives). The controller addresses data by cylinder/head/sector or via LBA (logical block addressing), where each block equals one sector unit logically presented to the OS. Step-by-Step Solution: Recognize the geometry: platter → surfaces (heads) → tracks → sectors.Match the term that directly subdivides tracks: sectors.Note that file systems group sectors into clusters later, which is a higher-level construct. Verification / Alternative check: Disk utilities show sector counts per track and total LBA sectors; file system tools show cluster size as multiples of sectors. Why Other Options Are Wrong: clusters: File system grouping above the physical sector level. vectors: Not a disk geometry term. heads: Refer to read/write heads (surfaces), not subdivisions of a track. None of the above: Incorrect because sectors is correct. Common Pitfalls: Confusing OS-level clusters with hardware-level sectors; clusters vary by file system, sectors are hardware/format-level units. Final Answer: sectors

Question 8

On a classic PC I/O controller, the 34-pin ribbon connector is intended for which legacy storage device interface?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Legacy desktop motherboards and multi-I/O cards provided multiple storage connectors. Correctly identifying pin counts and cable types is essential when servicing older equipment or recovering data from vintage media. Given Data / Assumptions: 34-pin keyed header on an I/O card or motherboard. Standard PC architecture conventions are assumed. Concept / Approach: The 34-pin header is the standard PC floppy disk controller (FDC) interface for 3.5-inch and 5.25-inch floppy drives. By contrast, IDE/PATA uses 40-pin (or 44-pin for 2.5-inch) connectors, and classic internal SCSI commonly uses 50-pin (narrow) or 68-pin (wide) connectors. Parallel-port Zip drives used DB-25 external connectors; internal IDE Zip drives used 40-pin IDE, not 34-pin. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify connector: 34 pins → typical of floppy interface.Exclude alternatives: IDE 40/44 pins; SCSI 50/68 pins; Zip may be IDE or external parallel.Select 'Floppy drive' as the correct match. Verification / Alternative check: Ribbon cables for floppies usually include a twist between certain conductors for drive selection (A: vs B:), confirming the interface type. Why Other Options Are Wrong: SCSI drive: Pin count mismatch for standard internal connectors. IDE drive: Uses 40/44 pins, not 34. Zip drive: Internal IDE version uses IDE; external parallel is not a 34-pin ribbon. None of the above: Incorrect because floppy is correct. Common Pitfalls: Plugging the cable reversed (pin 1 misaligned) leads to drive lights staying on; always align the stripe with pin 1. Final Answer: Floppy drive

Question 9

Most PCs emit a single POST beep at power-on to indicate basic hardware health. If there is no beep at boot, what is the first item you should check?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Power-On Self-Test (POST) beeps are basic diagnostic signals. A single short beep typically means the system passed POST. If no beep is heard, do not assume a major failure first; verify that the audible signaling path actually exists. Given Data / Assumptions: System powers on but you hear no POST beep. Motherboard is expected to provide beeps via a chassis speaker or onboard piezo. Goal: Determine the very first, quick check before deep hardware replacements. Concept / Approach: Many builds lack a connected chassis speaker, have the speaker header miswired, or use a case with no speaker at all. Some boards require a small piezo beeper. If the speaker is missing or disconnected, you will not hear beeps even if POST is running. Therefore, the fastest first check is the presence/connection of the speaker. Step-by-Step Solution: Open the case and verify the speaker or beeper is installed and connected to the correct front-panel header pins.Ensure polarity/placement matches the motherboard manual.If present and connected, then proceed to check PSU rails, RAM seating, and other components. Verification / Alternative check: Many motherboards include onboard POST code LEDs or debug displays; if available, consult these while you confirm speaker connectivity. Why Other Options Are Wrong: power supply / system board / RAM / microprocessor: These can fail, but checking the speaker first is quicker and rules out a simple cause of 'no beep'. Common Pitfalls: Assuming silence means a dead board; often it is simply a missing buzzer module or an unplugged case speaker harness. Final Answer: speaker

Question 10

In computer hardware maintenance, Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) typically causes the most damage to which component, and why are its internal parts especially vulnerable compared to other peripherals?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) is a sudden flow of electricity between two charged objects. In computer servicing and assembly, understanding which parts are most vulnerable is essential to prevent invisible, cumulative damage that leads to intermittent faults or total failure. Given Data / Assumptions: Typical PC components considered: power supply, expansion board, monitor, and keyboard. Normal bench environment without specialized ionization unless stated. Human body can carry thousands of volts of static charge that discharge upon contact. Concept / Approach: ESD damage correlates with the presence of small-geometry semiconductor junctions and exposed circuitry. Components with dense ICs, unshielded traces, and direct handling risk are more susceptible. Expansion boards (e.g., graphics, NIC, sound cards) have numerous sensitive ICs and edge connectors directly touched during installation, making them prime ESD targets. Step-by-Step Solution: 1) Identify components with sensitive semiconductor devices: expansion boards contain GPUs, ASICs, memory, and logic ICs.2) Consider handling patterns: technicians frequently touch expansion boards at contacts and components during installation, increasing ESD exposure.3) Contrast with power supplies: PSUs have primary-side isolation, robust filtering, and metal enclosures that reduce direct ESD impact on sensitive parts.4) Contrast with monitor and keyboard: these peripherals are usually enclosed and less often handled at the board level during routine tasks.5) Conclude that expansion boards experience the highest combination of sensitivity and direct handling risk. Verification / Alternative check: Service guides and ESD handling standards emphasize antistatic bags, wrist straps, and grounded mats specifically when handling PCBs and add-in cards, confirming their heightened susceptibility. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Power supply: Typically shielded, with fewer direct-contact ICs exposed during routine handling. Monitor: Enclosed; ESD rarely affects internal boards unless opened. Keyboard: Contains simple circuitry and is externally insulated. None of the above: Incorrect because expansion boards are clearly vulnerable. Common Pitfalls: Assuming visible sparks are needed for damage (latent ESD can occur below human perception), and touching card contacts without grounding. Final Answer: Expansion board

Question 11

In PC hardware, which motherboard form factor introduced the single 20-pin main power connector standard on the board?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Motherboard form factors define physical dimensions, mounting holes, I/O placement, and power connector standards. Recognizing which form factor standardized the single 20-pin main power connector helps in correct PSU selection and system compatibility. Given Data / Assumptions: We compare ATX with earlier AT and Baby AT form factors. Focus is on the main motherboard power connector standard. Historical mainstream desktop platforms are implied. Concept / Approach: AT and Baby AT used dual 6-pin connectors (often labeled P8 and P9) that had to be oriented correctly. ATX replaced this with a unified 20-pin connector, simplifying installation and improving power delivery and safety. Later ATX revisions expanded to 24 pins, but the question targets the original 20-pin standard. Step-by-Step Solution: 1) Identify legacy standards: AT/Baby AT utilized two separate 6-pin blocks.2) Identify ATX innovation: a single keyed 20-pin connector for the motherboard.3) Note evolution: ATX12V later added 4 pins (20+4) for higher loads.4) Conclude that the first to use one 20-pin connector was ATX. Verification / Alternative check: Technical references and PSU labeling (ATX P1 20-pin) confirm the ATX origin of the 20-pin standard before the move to 24 pins. Why Other Options Are Wrong: AT: Used P8/P9 dual connectors, not one 20-pin. Baby AT: Same power scheme as AT. All of the above: False because only ATX matches the 20-pin criterion. None of the above: False because ATX is correct. Common Pitfalls: Confusing modern 24-pin ATX with the original 20-pin, and assuming AT boards ever used a single multi-pin connector (they did not). Final Answer: ATX

Question 12

For safe computer maintenance, which product should be used to clean smudged keys on a keyboard without harming plastics or leaving residue?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Keyboard cleaning must remove oils, smudges, and grime while avoiding damage to plastic keycaps, printed legends, and internal switch mechanisms. The right cleaner should evaporate quickly and leave minimal residue to prevent sticky keys or long-term deterioration. Given Data / Assumptions: Objective is surface cleaning of keycaps, not internal switch repair. Materials include ABS or PBT plastics and printed or UV-coated legends. We want a commonly available cleaner that is safe for electronics maintenance. Concept / Approach: Denatured alcohol (and, in practice, isopropyl alcohol 70–99%) is widely used because it evaporates quickly, dissolves skin oils, and typically does not attack most keyboard plastics when used sparingly on a lint-free cloth. Products with oils (e.g., silicone) or surfactants (many all-purpose cleaners) can leave residues that attract dust or seep into switches. Step-by-Step Solution: 1) Identify soil: fingerprints, skin oils, and light grime cause smudges.2) Choose solvent: denatured alcohol removes oils efficiently and evaporates fast.3) Application: lightly dampen a microfiber cloth; avoid dripping into key switches.4) Safety: test on an inconspicuous area; do not soak legends; keep power off during cleaning.5) Result: clean, residue-free keycaps with minimal risk to plastics. Verification / Alternative check: Electronics service practices recommend alcohol-based cleaners for plastics and housings. After cleaning, keys should feel dry and non-greasy within minutes, indicating minimal residue. Why Other Options Are Wrong: TMC solvent: Unclear formulation; may be too aggressive for consumer plastics. Silicone spray: Leaves oily film that traps dust and can migrate into switches. All-purpose cleaner: Often contains surfactants and fragrances that leave residue. None of the above: Incorrect because denatured alcohol is appropriate when used correctly. Common Pitfalls: Spraying liquid directly on the keyboard, using excessive force on printed legends, and confusing alcohol content (use moderate strength and avoid acetone or harsh solvents). Final Answer: Denatured alcohol

Question 13

In networking, when a network interface card (NIC) is labeled as 10/100, what does this specification indicate about its data rates?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: NIC specifications often include numeric pairs like 10/100 or 10/100/1000. Understanding these numbers helps identify supported Ethernet data rates and match cabling, switches, and performance expectations in small office/home and enterprise networks. Given Data / Assumptions: 10/100 refers to legacy Fast Ethernet compatibility. Media is typically copper twisted pair with RJ-45 connectors. Full- or half-duplex operation may apply depending on configuration and switch support. Concept / Approach: Ethernet data rates are expressed in megabits per second (Mb/s). A 10/100 NIC supports 10 Mb/s (10BASE-T) and 100 Mb/s (100BASE-TX). Auto-negotiation selects the highest mutually supported rate and duplex between NIC and switch. The notation does not refer to protocol versions, fiber classification, or server speed; it is strictly the line-rate capability of the NIC. Step-by-Step Solution: 1) Interpret 10/100 as supported link rates: 10 Mb/s and 100 Mb/s.2) Recognize units: Mb/s stands for megabits per second, the standard Ethernet speed unit.3) Apply to deployment: ensure cables and switch ports also support the chosen rate (Cat5 or better for 100 Mb/s).4) Confirm via OS settings or switch port status showing negotiated speed/duplex. Verification / Alternative check: Checking NIC properties in the operating system or switch interface will show the negotiated link speed as 10 Mb/s or 100 Mb/s, validating the meaning of the label. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Protocol speed: Vague and misleading; Ethernet speed is link data rate, not a separate protocol metric. A fiber speed: 10/100 commonly refers to copper Ethernet; fiber uses other designations. Minimum and maximum server speed: Server performance is unrelated to NIC link-rate labeling. None of the above: Incorrect because 10/100 clearly denotes megabits per second. Common Pitfalls: Confusing Mb/s (megabits per second) with MB/s (megabytes per second), and assuming cable quality is irrelevant to achieving 100 Mb/s. Final Answer: Megabits per second

Question 14

When installing a SCSI CD-ROM drive on an existing SCSI bus, what should the SCSI ID of the new CD-ROM be set to for correct operation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) devices share a common bus where each device must have a unique SCSI ID to avoid contention. Properly assigning the SCSI ID when adding a CD-ROM ensures the host adapter can enumerate all devices without conflicts. Given Data / Assumptions: There is an existing SCSI bus with other devices present. Standard SCSI ID ranges apply (e.g., 0–7 on narrow SCSI, where the host adapter often uses a reserved ID like 7). Termination rules are followed at the physical ends of the bus. Concept / Approach: On a SCSI chain, every device (including the host adapter) must have a unique ID. The CD-ROM's SCSI ID must not duplicate any existing ID. Many systems reserve specific IDs (e.g., ID 7 for the host, ID 0 for the boot hard disk), but the universal requirement is uniqueness, not a fixed number for optical drives. Step-by-Step Solution: 1) Inventory current SCSI IDs on the bus (e.g., via adapter BIOS or device jumpers).2) Identify a free ID not used by any other device.3) Set the CD-ROM's jumpers or selector to that unused ID.4) Ensure proper termination at the bus ends and disable termination on middle devices.5) Reboot and confirm enumeration: the adapter should list each device by its unique ID. Verification / Alternative check: If the adapter BIOS or OS detects two devices with the same ID, the bus will exhibit errors or one device will be missing. After assigning a unique ID, both devices appear and function normally, confirming the rule. Why Other Options Are Wrong: B0007: Not a valid SCSI ID format; IDs are numeric within the bus range. The same address as the SCSI device before the CD-ROM: Causes ID conflict and enumeration failure. SCSI ID = 1: Arbitrary; may already be in use. Uniqueness matters, not a specific number. None of the above: Incorrect because the correct action is to use an unused SCSI address. Common Pitfalls: Forgetting to adjust termination when inserting a new middle device, assuming the optical drive must be ID 1, and overlooking that the host adapter often occupies ID 7 on narrow SCSI. Final Answer: An unused SCSI address

Question 15

Voltage is measured:

Accepted Answer

in parallel

Question 16

ESD would cause the most damage to which component?

Accepted Answer

Expansion board

Question 17

RS-232 is a standard that applies to:

Accepted Answer

serial ports

Question 18

Which type of system board is the MOST likely candidate for processor upgrading if you want maximum performance and future compatibility?

Accepted Answer

PCI

Question 19

In Inkjet technology the droplets of ink are deflected by?

Accepted Answer

multi directional nozzles

Question 20

What beep codes could indicate a system board or power supply failure?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Computer Hardware Questions